PART XII General anesthetics
01. The state of “general anesthesia” usually includes:
a) Analgesia
b) Loss of consciousness, inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
c) Amnesia
d) All of the above
02. Inhaled anesthetics and intravenous agents having general anesthetic properties:
a) Directly activate GABAA receptors
b) Facilitate GABA action but have no direct action on GABAA receptors
c) Reduce the excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission
d) Increase the duration of opening of nicotine-activated potassium channels
03. Indicate the anesthetic, which is an inhibitor of NMDA glutamate receptors:
a) Thiopental
b) Halothane
c) Ketamine
d) Sevoflurane
04. An ideal anesthetic drug would:
a) Induces anesthesia smoothly and rapidly and secure rapid recovery
b) Posses a wide margin of safety
c) Be devoid of adverse effects
d) All of the above
05. Which of the following general anesthetics belongs to inhalants?
a) Thiopental
b) Desfluran
c) Ketamine
d) Propofol
06. Indicate the anesthetic, which is used intravenously:
a) Propofol
b) Halothane
c) Desflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
07. Which of the following inhalants is a gas anesthetic?
a) Halothane
b) Isoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Desflurane
08. Sevoflurane has largely replaced halothane and isoflurane as an inhalation anesthetic of choice because:
a) Induction of anesthesia is achieved more rapidly and smoothly
b) Recovery is more rapid
c) It has low post- anesthetic organ toxicity
d) All of the above
09. The limitation of sevoflurane is:
a) High incidence of coughing and laryngospasm
b) Chemically unstable
c) Centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading to a rise of BP and HR
d) Hepatotoxicity
10. Which of the following inhalants lacks sufficient potency to produce surgical anesthesia by itself and therefore is commonly used with another inhaled or intravenous anesthetic?
a) Halothane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Desflurane
11. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has rapid onset and recovery?
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Desflurane
c) Sevoflurane
d) All of the above
12. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which reduces arterial pressure and heart rate:
a) Isoflurane
b) Halothane
c) Desflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
13. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics causes centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading to a rise in blood pressure and heart rate?
a) Desflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Isofurane
14. Indicated the inhaled anesthetic, which decreases the ventilatory response to hypoxia:
a) Sevoflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Desflurane
d) Halothane
15. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is an induction agent of choice in patient with airway problems?
a) Desfurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Halothane
d) None of the above
16. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which causes the airway irritation:
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sevoflurane
c) Halothane
d) Desflurane
17. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics increases cerebral blood flow least of all?
a) Sevoflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Isoflurane
d) Desflurane
18. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which should be avoided in patients with a history of seizure disorders:
a) Enflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Sevoflurane
d) Desflurane
19. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics can produce hepatic necrosis?
a) Soveflurane
b) Desflurane
c) Halothane
d) Nitrous oxide
20. Indicated the inhaled anesthetic, which may cause nephrotoxicity:
a) Halothane
b) Soveflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Diethyl ether
21. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics decreases metheonine synthase activity and causes megaloblastic anemia?
a) Desflurane
b) Halothane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Soveflurane
22. Unlike inhaled anesthetics, intravenous agents such as thiopental, etomidate, and propofol:
a) Have a faster onset and rate of recovery
b) Provide a state of conscious sedation
c) Are commonly used for induction of anesthesia
d) All of the above
23. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate:
a) Fentanyl
b) Thiopental
c) Midazolam
d) Ketamine
24. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is a benzodiazepine derivative:
a) Midazolam
b) Thiopental
c) Ketamin
d) Propofol
25. Which of the following agents is used to accelerate recovery from the sedative actions of intravenous benzodiazepines?
a) Naloxone
b) Flumazenil
c) Ketamine
d) Fomepizole
26. Neuroleptanalgesia has all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) Droperidol and fentanyl are commonly used
b) It can be used with nitrous oxide to provide neuroleptanesthesia
c) Hypertension is a common consequence
d) Confusion and mental depression can occur as adverse effects
27. Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has antiemetic actions?
a) Thiopental
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Fentanyl
28. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which causes minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depressant effects:
a) Propofol
b) Thiopental
c) Etomidate
d) Midazolam
29. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which produces dissociative anesthesia:
a) Midazolam
b) Ketamine
c) Fentanyl
d) Thiopental
30. Ketamine anesthesia is associated with:
a) Cardiovascular stimulation
b) Increased cerebral blood flow, oxygen consumption and intracranial pressure
c) Disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, and vivid dreams following anesthesia
d) All of the above
